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God Bless
Praying to God to Bless the Bread – Really?
"God is Spirit, and those who worship him must worship him in spirit and truth." (John 4:24 NKJV)
Whose job is it to bless the bread and bless the fruit of the vine when the Lord's Supper is being observed? One hears continually the man presiding over the table, the one who makes a few comments and offers prayer, or the man he may call on to offer prayer, asking God to "bless the bread" and then a little later asking God to "bless the fruit of the vine." Why? I have no idea other than it has been done so long it has become habit. It is not scriptural.
Just a little thinking on the subject ought to convince most. How do you bless an inanimate (non-living) object? Rain after a long drought is certainly a blessing but it is not the rain God blessed in sending it to man but the man who received the rain. God blessed man, not the rain, unless you want to say the rain was blessed in the sense that God made more of it. It is true in Deut. 7:13 you will find inanimate objects being blessed but if you turn there and take a look at the passage you will see that those objects (fruit of the land, corn, wine, oil) are being increased by God's blessing, being made abundant for the sake of his people. Are we wanting God to "bless the bread" and "bless the fruit of the vine" at the communion table this way - by making it more abundant? I think not.
When we ask God to bless the bread and/or the fruit of the vine at the communion table even those who ask do not know or understand what it is they are asking for or what they are expecting from God. We want God to bless it but we do not have the slightest idea of what we expect as a result of his doing so. What is supposed to happen when he does bless the bread (assuming he is doing it which I deny)?
Sometimes the one who leads the prayer will qualify his request for a blessing on the bread and/or fruit of the vine by adding a qualifier saying "bless it to its intended use." How does that help? What is the intended use of the bread and fruit of the vine – is it spiritual or physical? All agree the intended use lies in the spiritual realm but that means in order for the bread and the fruit of the vine to be of benefit to me personally it is not what God does to the emblems (as they are frequently called by man – the bread and the fruit of the vine) but my attitude, my spiritual state of mind, my approach to the supper that makes the difference as to whether or not it proves a blessing to me. It is not what God does that makes it a blessing. The Lord's Supper is meant to be a blessing to us but it is already that without further action on God's part as regards the bread and the fruit of the vine. God did many generations ago all he needed to do to make the Lord's Supper a blessing to man.
It is what man does that counts now as to whether or not the Lord's Supper will be a blessing to us or not. Paul teaches the Lord's Supper instead of being a blessing can become a condemnation not because of God but because of our wreck less partaking of it if we play the fool while partaking. "Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord." (1 Cor. 11:27 KJV) "For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body." (1 Cor. 11:29 KJV) I have over the course of a few decades seen once in a great while someone talking or visiting while the Lord's Supper was being observed. Do they understand what they are doing? I think not. Partaking of the Lord's Supper is serious business. It needs to be done showing all respect, reverence, honor, and love.
I do not believe there is the least bit of evidence in scripture for the idea that Jesus ever blessed the bread or the fruit of the vine based on what is recorded. If he did where is it found? Where is the example of any man in New Testament times asking God to bless the bread and/or the fruit of the vine?
What does the word "bless" mean as it relates to prayer? There is one passage that is so clear on the matter as to settle the issue. That passage is 1 Cor. 14:16-17:
"Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified." (1 Cor. 14:16-17 KJV)
This is so simple as to be nearly impossible to misunderstand. To bless in prayer means to give thanks.
Since the word "bless" is only used 10 times in a total of 9 verses in the King James Version of the New Testament it will not take long to run through those listings, check them out, and see what we can find out, namely, see if we ought to continue this practice of asking God to bless the emblems at the Lord's table. Since we have already looked at 1 Cor. 14:16-17 we only have 8 other verses to look at. Those verses are: Matt. 5:44, Luke 6:28, Rom. 12:14, 1 Cor. 4:12, Acts 3:26, 1 Cor. 10:16, Heb. 6:14, and James 3:9.
Four of these eight verses teach the same message so we can deal with them as a group. I will use the passage of Luke 6:28 for this purpose which reads as follows:
"Bless them that curse you, and pray for them which despitefully use you." (KJV)
If the reader will check out Matt. 5:44, Rom. 12:14, and 1 Cor. 4:12 he will find the same doctrine being taught. I did not start with Matt. 5:44 for the reason that most modern versions do not have the word bless in them at that verse in view of the fact there is a textual variant there.
Anyone can see from a quick reading that man, not God, is to do the blessing in all four of these passages. It is also obvious that one man can only bless another in one of two ways, either by word or by deed. Most commentators agree with Barnes' remarks who says, "The word 'bless' here means to 'speak well of' or 'speak well to.'" I am not sure I would want to limit it to that alone but I am just passing on this famous commentator's remarks. (Barnes' comments are on the parallel passage – Matt. 5:44.)
This only leaves 4 other times the King James New Testament uses our word "bless" and the reader will realize that so far we have not found a single instance where the word bless is used as man commonly uses the term today.
The next verse is Acts 3:26:
"Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities." (KJV)
In this passage the meaning of the word bless is self explanatory as it is plainly stated. Jesus does bless us by "turning away every one of you from his iniquities." The ESV is even plainer for it reads, "God, having raised up his servant, sent him to you first, to bless you by turning every one of you from your wickedness." This blessing came to man by means of the cross and the gospel which if believed and obeyed results in the greatest blessing possible that could be bestowed upon man.
We next come to the word "bless" as found in 1 Cor. 10:16 which deals with the Lord's Supper. It reads:
"The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?" (KJV)
All agree that Paul is talking here about the communion service. The "cup of blessing which we bless" (please notice we do this, not God) is the fruit of the vine used in that service. Paul says he was told by the Lord what was to be done at the Lord's Supper, "For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread: And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, 'Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.' After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, 'This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.'" (1 Cor. 11:23-25 KJV) Please note this 1 Cor. 11 passage comes in the very next chapter after 1 Cor. 10:16, the verse in question.
Paul says that Jesus gave thanks for the bread and then says of the fruit of the vine Jesus did the same (gave thanks) for he says "after the same manner," that is he followed the same procedure for the fruit of the vine as he had done for the bread. Bless thus means to give thanks in prayer to God or else Paul in 1 Cor. 10:16 is asking us to do something different from what he said Jesus did in 1 Cor. 11:23-25 and I also remind the reader again of 1 Cor. 14:16-17 which defines the word "bless" when used in prayer.
In the last half of chapter 11 of First Corinthians Paul deals with the subject of the Lord's Supper in order that the Corinthians (and all later generations) might observe it properly. He begins with the words (verse 23), "For I have received of the Lord." (KJV) If you want to do what Jesus did and follow his example do as Jesus did. It is safe, it is what ought to be done.
Here is the summary of the points that need to be learned from these Corinthian passages. (1) We are indeed to bless, give thanks, while at the Lord's table but that means we do it, not ask God to do something mysterious to the emblems or give thanks himself. (2) Jesus' example shows that he did not bestow a blessing (as modern day man perceives of the thing) on the bread and/or fruit of the vine in instituting the Lord's Supper but merely gave thanks for the emblems. (3) Jesus did not ask God to bless the bread and/or the fruit of the vine.
I think it is very possible modern day error on this subject has come from a bad rendering in the King James Bible of Matt. 26:26-27 where a word was added to the text by the translators but generally read by readers as though it was a part of the original Greek manuscripts. The text there reads as follows:
"And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it." (Matt. 26:26-27 KJV)
In the original Greek there is only one "it" in this entire passage and that is the very last one. All the other "it" words were added by the translators. Thus the King James Version makes the text sound as though Jesus blessed the bread and people have been led astray by that. Please check me out on this by finding a Bible that italicizes all the words added by the translators. All of my King James and New King James Bibles italicize words added by translators not found in the original.
Here is the way the two verses read when words added by the translators that are not in the original are omitted as they should have been.
"And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and brake, and gave to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave to them, saying, Drink ye all of it." (Matt. 26:26-27 KJV)
Jesus thus just blessed which means, as we have already shown, that he gave thanks for the bread. In fact, one ought to be able to see this easily enough for with regards to the cup the text clearly says Jesus gave thanks. Did he do one thing for the fruit of the vine while doing something entirely different for the bread? Did he give a supernatural blessing to the bread while not doing so on the fruit of the vine? We know better.
Let the reader beware, the King James Version is not the only translation that has done this sort of thing with this verse. I am not going to go through all the various versions but I can tell you the English Standard Version (ESV) is guilty of the same thing and the problem with the ESV is it does not italicize words added by the translators that are not in the original Greek. Overall the ESV is an excellent translation but I hate this failure to italicize added words.
Before leaving Matt. 26:26-27 for good here are some comments from Barnes' commentary on the passage. He says, and I quote, "or 'gave thanks' to God for it. The word rendered 'blessed' not unfrequently means 'to give thanks.'"
The word bless is used in the sense of gave thanks in prayer in all passages relating to the Lord's Supper. One can find the record of the Lord's instituting the Lord's Supper in Matt. 26:26-27, Mark 14:22-23, and Luke 22:19-20. Matthew and Mark say Jesus "blessed" with regards to the bread while Luke says he "gave thanks" as does Paul in 1 Cor. 11:23-24. As already stated blessed means to give thanks when we are talking about prayer. Matthew and Mark are not contradicting Luke and Paul. In every instance as it related to the fruit of the vine in these passages it was not blessed but "gave thanks" as far as what terms were used in describing what was done. Luke says "likewise" but says with regards to the bread that Jesus gave thanks thus "likewise" means Jesus gave thanks.
If the reader will just remember 1 Cor. 14:16-17 he/she will never be confused again with regards to this subject. Many years ago it was common when people were gathered together for a meal to hear the one in charge ask another "to give the blessing." People back in those days knew what the blessing was. Times have changed. To bless or give the blessing is to have a prayer of thanksgiving to God. This is not to say that this is what the word bless means in every instance but it is to say that it is what it means in reference to the Lord's Supper and in prayers surrounding that observance.
That pretty much covers the discussion which is the subject of this paper for the last two verses where the word "bless" is used do not relate to the Lord's Supper. The first passage is Heb. 6:13-14, "For when God made promise to Abraham, because he could swear by no greater, he sware by himself, saying, surely blessing I will bless thee, and multiplying I will multiply thee." (KJV) The reader will readily see we are not dealing with the subject of prayer here. The words blessing and bless here refer to what we commonly think of when we hear the phrase "blessings from God."
The last time the word "bless" is used in the King James New Testament is in James 3:8-9. "But the tongue can no man tame; it is an unruly evil, full of deadly poison. Therewith bless we God, even the Father; and therewith curse we men, which are made after the similitude of God." Here again is another passage showing that bless in prayer means to give thanks. The TEV, or as it is sometimes called "The Good News Bible," translates these two verses as follows:
"But no one has ever been able to tame the tongue. It is evil and uncontrollable, full of deadly poison. We use it to give thanks to our Lord and Father and also to curse other people, who are created in the likeness of God." (James 3:8-9 TEV) To bless is to give thanks as is easily seen by comparing the King James translation with that of the TEV.
We should follow the example Jesus gave in giving thanks to God the Father for the bread and the fruit of the vine when observing the Lord's Supper and should stop this business of asking God to bless the bread and fruit of the vine. What do we expect him to do after all?
Many who give thanks at every meal and would not think of doing otherwise observe the Lord's Supper regularly where thanksgiving is never or rarely given and that at the most important meal a person will ever take part in in this world – the Lord's Supper. Jesus gave thanks but we often don't. We need to be educated on the subject. Jesus gave his life for us and yet in observing that event we do not give thanks. Friends if you are a Christian you ought to think long and hard about that.
Instead of doing what we ought to do we do that which was unheard of in scripture and that which no one can explain with regards to what it is they want God to do. We say we want him to bless the bread, to bless the fruit of the vine, but when asked to explain who can? What is he suppose to do in blessing it? The reality he gave us the Lord's Supper as a blessing. It is up to us now, not him, to make it what he intended it to be for us.
Finally, there is the matter of conscience involved in this. If one believes as I do that we are to give God thanks for the bread and the fruit of the vine at the Lord's table how are we to worship in good conscience if the one leading prayer does not give thanks but wants to go ahead and ask God to bless? What are we to do? We know we are to thank God but the one in charge wants God to bless the bread, an inanimate object, and does not thank God. If we are to worship God "in spirit and in truth" are we doing so when we do not give thanks? Where is the truth part if we do not give thanks? I do not have any answers since I am like all others in that I am subject to whatever the speaker says, he is in charge, not me. I do all I can and offer a silent prayer of my own but this is certainly not the preferable route to take but what are you going to do?
About the Author
All of Denny's articles, over 100 audio sermons by Waymon Swain, a free online Bible correspondence course, plus access by links to many other Bible study resources can all be found on Denny's web site dennysmith.net.
why do they have to sing this long version of god bless america?
this version is long why don't they just sing god bless america? we don't need the long intro.
I'm glad to see some answers here. I've always wondered why the Yankees ahd to sing that song during 7th inning. Most other teams in the MLB don't sing it why just the Yankees? It sort of disrupts the game, you never see this song being sung at football games, the Yankees should stop doing this during 7th inning. the National anthem in the beginning of the game is enough.
Why do we need that song during every 7th inning?
Billie Holiday God Bless The Child